What would the difference be between two batches of beer if one was made with 100% grain and a low mash temp vs one where a small percentage of sugar replaced some of the grain (5-10%) but a higher mash temp, but the appearent attenuation was the same? Basically thinking the OG and FG are the same in both but the method to get the numbers is different.
I assume the body, mouthfeel and maltiness would be effected to some degree but I’m not sure which method would do what.
The 100% grain should be dry, with residual maltiness–just not sweet…
The added sugar beer should also be dry, but with a thinner mouthfeel.
From what I have come to understand, the more simple sugar that is added, the easier that sugar is to break down enzymatically and by the yeast. Therefore, less residual effects on the finished beer.
What comes to mind for me is the difference between a pilsner with 100% pilsner malt, or one with 30% adjunct. The adjuncts just break down easier and therefore take up less of the mouthfeel…
Hmmm… Interesting question. I think you are getting at the following.
Lower mash temp = higher alcohol level due to more beta amylase, less body
Higher mash temp = lower alcohol level, more body.
Are you asking, because sugar is cheaper what part of sugar adjunct would compensate for a higher mash temp and less grain?
This would be a good experiment (or exbeeriment).
Since Beta is pretty much stopped at 158, a mash at that temp or higher will allow for the greatest amount of Alpha usage, therefore the greatest amount of unfermentable sugars. With more thought we could come up with a way to determine an experiment.
You might be able to get similar attenuation, but the flavor of the 2 beers would be different since one would have a portion of the malt replaced by sugar.
The question has to do with recipe formulation, especially for Belgium styles.
It makes sense that the flavor would be different as there is more malt in one than the other. How about mouthfeel? Sugar will thin it out but the higher mash temp should increase it. Same should go for body, I would think. I can’t help but think there must be a definable relationship.
I know the Brits tend to use sugar and high mash temps but that has it’s roots based in tax law rather than a desired effect. Of course the fact that they still do it has to mean something.
I would expect the sugar beer to have a touch of astringency that would be absent the grain beer. The result would be a slightly thinner, sharper beer despite equal fg. Pure conjecture and no experience with related comparative experimentation.
[quote=“Belpaire”]
I know the Brits tend to use sugar and high mash temps but that has it’s roots based in tax law rather than a desired effect. Of course the fact that they still do it has to mean something.[/quote]
